$${\left({\frac{{\mathtt{p}}}{{\mathtt{q}}}}\right)}^{{\mathtt{2}}} = {\frac{\left({{\mathtt{p}}}^{{\mathtt{2}}}\right)}{\left({{\mathtt{q}}}^{{\mathtt{2}}}\right)}} = {\mathtt{all}}$$
Ich verstehe deine Frage nicht.
