Thank you soooooooo much! Your solution made so much sense!

Um...

We would need to know the force of gravity to determine when it hits its peak point...

-MathCuber

P.S I may be wrong i'm only 10...

First calculate the probability that the larger number is n (1 <= n <= 6). This is exactly (2n-1)/36. Why? There are three possibilities: The first die is exactly n, the second die is smaller -- So second die can be 1 ... n-1. The second die is exactly n, the first die is smaller -- So the first die can be 1 ... n-1. Both die are the same. This happens in only one way. So total number of ways in which the larger number is n = 2n-1. Hence the probability that the larger number is n is (2n - 1)/36. Consequently, the expected value of the larger of the two numbers is Sum [n = 1 to 6] (2n -1)/36 * n = 1/36 (Sum [n = 1 to 6] 2n^2 - Sum [n = 1 to 6] n) You can compute this either directly or by using formulas for sequences. The answer is 161/36.

I think it's B. 3^32 is 30 times larger than 3^22, the minus 1's don't really matter, and the 1/2 makes not much of a difference either, considering that the other number is 30 times larger.

I think this is impossible for people like us. We would need to be a physicist to figure this out...

I have many questions, like how fast the ball goes, when it is at its peak point. Also, we would need to know the force of gravity, and the angle in which it is kicked. This is science...

You assumed right, Thank you!

The answer is wrong, pls help!

(1) If we let x be how much the drill was when Lily bought it and y the price regularly, we can make the equation x+17=y. We also know y*0.08=17. So the second equation turns into 1700/8=y so y is 212.50. Then we know x is 195.50, so lily paid $195.50 for the dill.

Hope this helps!! :)

If 5 is x and y is 0 and we plug them in, we have 0 < -5+5, which is 0 < 0, so (5,0) is NOT a solution.

Since the expected loss is 50 cents, we know it is more likely to lose than to win. It is also impossible to get -50, and the total difference between the 2 possibilities is 2, 50/200=1/4, so the chance of winning is 1/4 and the chance of losing is 3/4. Since (1/4)*3=3/4, the amount of black balls are 3 times the amount of white balls, so k=15.