+118703 Thank you Heureka and thankyou anons for voicing your concerns.
If you want to learn effectively you MUST speak up. 
This is always a source of confusion. 
Firstly
−42=−1∗42=−1∗16=−16$Whereas$(−4)2=−4∗−4=+16$Nowwhyisthisso?$consider50−32=50−9=41$SeehowtheminussignDIDNOTbelongtothe3$$Ifitdidbelongtothe3thenthiswouldbehowithadtobedone$50+(−3)2=50+9=59=50+32
Now I do not think that anyone would think 50+32 should equal 50−32
so the minus sign cannot belong to the 3
+26396 Why does -4^2 equal -16 and not +16 ?
−42=(−1)[(4)2]=(−1)[16]=−16(−4)2=[(−1)∗(4)2]=(−1)2∗(4)2=1∗16=16
by the way -4^2 does = 16, not -16 because -4*-4=16. 2 negatives make a positive, duhhhh!!!! dont hit the minus, hit the negative
+118703 Thank you Heureka and thankyou anons for voicing your concerns.
If you want to learn effectively you MUST speak up.
This is always a source of confusion.
Firstly
−42=−1∗42=−1∗16=−16$Whereas$(−4)2=−4∗−4=+16$Nowwhyisthisso?$consider50−32=50−9=41$SeehowtheminussignDIDNOTbelongtothe3$$Ifitdidbelongtothe3thenthiswouldbehowithadtobedone$50+(−3)2=50+9=59=50+32
Now I do not think that anyone would think 50+32 should equal 50−32
so the minus sign cannot belong to the 3
