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If $ \sqrt{x+\!\sqrt{x+\!\sqrt{x+\!\sqrt{x+\cdots}}}}=9$, find $x$.

 Feb 3, 2015

Best Answer 

 #12
avatar+118703 
+10

Well Bertie I have given it a shot   

 

Prove 1+x1+(x+1)1+(x+2).....=x+1LHSf(x)=1+x1+(x+1)1+(x+2).....f(x+1)=1+(x+1)1+(x+2).....f(x)=1+xf(x+1)f2(x)=1+x[f(x+1)]

 

RHSg(x)=x+1g(x+1)=x+1+1g(x+1)=1+g(x)g2(x)=(x+1)2g2(x)=x2+2x+1g2(x)=1+x(x+2)g2(x)=1+x[g(x+1)]

 

f2(x)=1+x[f(x+1)]andg2(x)=1+x[g(x+1)]$Itfollowsthat$f2(x)=g2(x)Nowf(x)0$becauseitistheanswertoasquareroot$g(x)=x+1$whichmustbe$0$Thereforexisgreaterthanorequalto1$

 

The statement cannot be true if x is less than -1 because theRHS would be neg and the Left hand side can never be negative

 

$soforallrealvaluesofxgreaterthanorequalto1$f(x)=g(x)1+x1+(x+1)1+(x+2).....=x+1Q.E.D.

 

 

 

As an aside:

A look at two individual cases Ifx=0thenLHS=1+0...=1=1=RHSIfx=1thenLHS=1+11+(1+1)...=1+11+0=1+11=0=0=RHS

 

I am really not completely sure of of this proof.

Is it really true for ALL real values greater of equal to -1?

Is it completely correct Bertie or does it need refining?

 Feb 6, 2015
 #1
avatar+26396 
+10

If $ \sqrt{x+\!\sqrt{x+\!\sqrt{x+\!\sqrt{x+\cdots}}}}=9$, find $x$.

x+9=9|()2x+9=81x=819x=72

.
 Feb 3, 2015
 #2
avatar+118703 
0

That is really neat Heureka, thank you 

 Feb 3, 2015
 #3
avatar+130466 
+5

Let the expression on the left hand side = N = 9

Square both sides

x + N  = 81  

x + 9 = 81    subtract 9 from both sides

x = 72

 

 Feb 3, 2015
 #4
avatar+893 
+5

That I think is the second of these nested expansions in just a couple of days.

Here is, probably(?), the first problem of this type to appear in print.

Find the value of

\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1+4\sqrt{1+\dots

 Feb 3, 2015
 #5
avatar+130466 
0

Thanks, Bertie......

 

 Feb 3, 2015
 #6
avatar+118703 
0

So how do you do your one Bertie?  (or anyone else)   

 

\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1+4\sqrt{1+\dots

 Feb 3, 2015
 #7
avatar+130466 
+5

I believe that the famous Indian mathematician, Ramanujan, proved that this converges to 3

As to how he did it.......that's way above my pay grade....!!!!!

You can read about this mathematical genius, here....

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Srinivasa_Ramanujan

 

 Feb 3, 2015
 #8
avatar+118703 
0

Thanks Chris :))

 Feb 3, 2015
 #9
avatar+893 
+5

Yes Chris, the problem is credited to Srinivasa Ramanujan (1187 - 1920). It appeared in the Journal of the Indian Mathematical Society in 1911. Apparently after about three months no one had come up with a solution, so he published the general result

x+1=1+x1+(x+1)1+(x+2)1+

Try proving it as an exercise.

Substituting x = 2 gets you the stated problem with its answer.

 Feb 3, 2015
 #10
avatar
+5

Wow ! He was more than 700 years old. Was that why he was so good at mathematics ?

 Feb 3, 2015
 #11
avatar+118703 
0

Yes I am sure his long gevity did help him.   LOL

Although in reality it appears that Ramanujan was only 33 when he died - he was barely out of nappies.  

 Feb 4, 2015
 #12
avatar+118703 
+10
Best Answer

Well Bertie I have given it a shot   

 

Prove 1+x1+(x+1)1+(x+2).....=x+1LHSf(x)=1+x1+(x+1)1+(x+2).....f(x+1)=1+(x+1)1+(x+2).....f(x)=1+xf(x+1)f2(x)=1+x[f(x+1)]

 

RHSg(x)=x+1g(x+1)=x+1+1g(x+1)=1+g(x)g2(x)=(x+1)2g2(x)=x2+2x+1g2(x)=1+x(x+2)g2(x)=1+x[g(x+1)]

 

f2(x)=1+x[f(x+1)]andg2(x)=1+x[g(x+1)]$Itfollowsthat$f2(x)=g2(x)Nowf(x)0$becauseitistheanswertoasquareroot$g(x)=x+1$whichmustbe$0$Thereforexisgreaterthanorequalto1$

 

The statement cannot be true if x is less than -1 because theRHS would be neg and the Left hand side can never be negative

 

$soforallrealvaluesofxgreaterthanorequalto1$f(x)=g(x)1+x1+(x+1)1+(x+2).....=x+1Q.E.D.

 

 

 

As an aside:

A look at two individual cases Ifx=0thenLHS=1+0...=1=1=RHSIfx=1thenLHS=1+11+(1+1)...=1+11+0=1+11=0=0=RHS

 

I am really not completely sure of of this proof.

Is it really true for ALL real values greater of equal to -1?

Is it completely correct Bertie or does it need refining?

Melody Feb 6, 2015
 #13
avatar+130466 
0

Very nice, Melody.....

 

 Feb 6, 2015
 #14
avatar+3693 
+8

phew! u really thought about this problem! very well done!

 Feb 6, 2015
 #15
avatar+118703 
+3

Thanks Chris and Brittany  

 Feb 6, 2015
 #16
avatar+893 
+8

Hi Melody

Sorry, but I don't think that your proof is a proof. The problem is at the point where you say ' it follows that '

f2(x)=g2(x).

Just because two functions share the same property, it doesn't follow that they are the same function. For example if we have f(-x) = -f(x) and g(-x) = -g(x), it doesn't mean that f(x) and g(x) are the same function. It is simply saying that both f and g are odd functions, and there will be a whole stack of different possibles for either one of them.

I don't have a proof of this relationship that I really like. That would be a series of steps that took me from

f2(x)1+xf(x+1), 

through to

f(x)1+x.

I do have a couple of routines that might just pass.

Suppose (for no particularly good reason that I can think of) that f(x) is a polynomial of degree n. Then, on the LHS we have a polynomial of degree 2n and on the RHS a polynomial of degree n+1. For these to be identically equal we need 2n = n + 1, from which n = 1. Therefore, let f(x) = ax + b. Substitute that in and equate coefficients across the identity and you find that a = b = 1.

If I had to guess how Ramanujan came up with the result I would go for the following. I think that he was doodling, so to speak.

(1+x)2=1+2x+x2=1+x(2+x)

so

1+x=1+x(2+x)(1).

Similarly,

(2+x)2=(1+(1+x))2=1+2(1+x)+(1+x)2=1+(1+x)(3+x)

so

2+x=1+(1+x)(3+x)

so, substituting that into (1),

1+x=1+x1+(1+x)(3+x).

Now repeat the routine with 3 + x = 1 + (2 + x) and so on.

 Feb 7, 2015
 #17
avatar+118703 
+3

BUMMER!      LOL    :D

 

Thanks Bertie :))

 Feb 8, 2015
 #18
avatar+130466 
+3

Well...it SEEMED pretty convincing, Melody....!!!!

I still gave you points........!!!!

 

 Feb 8, 2015

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