Well Bertie I have given it a shot
Prove √1+x√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√.....=x+1LHSf(x)=√1+x√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√.....f(x+1)=√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√.....f(x)=√1+x∗f(x+1)f2(x)=1+x[f(x+1)]
RHSg(x)=x+1g(x+1)=x+1+1g(x+1)=1+g(x)g2(x)=(x+1)2g2(x)=x2+2x+1g2(x)=1+x(x+2)g2(x)=1+x[g(x+1)]
f2(x)=1+x[f(x+1)]andg2(x)=1+x[g(x+1)]$Itfollowsthat$f2(x)=g2(x)Nowf(x)≥0$becauseitistheanswertoasquareroot$g(x)=x+1$whichmustbe$≥0$Thereforexisgreaterthanorequalto−1$
The statement cannot be true if x is less than -1 because theRHS would be neg and the Left hand side can never be negative
$soforallrealvaluesofxgreaterthanorequalto−1$f(x)=g(x)√1+x√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√.....=x+1Q.E.D.
As an aside:
A look at two individual cases Ifx=0thenLHS=√1+0∗...=√1=1=RHSIfx=−1thenLHS=√1+−1∗√1+(−1+1)√...=√1+−1∗√1+0=√1+−1∗1=√0=0=RHS
I am really not completely sure of of this proof.
Is it really true for ALL real values greater of equal to -1?
Is it completely correct Bertie or does it need refining?
Let the expression on the left hand side = N = 9
Square both sides
x + N = 81
x + 9 = 81 subtract 9 from both sides
x = 72
That I think is the second of these nested expansions in just a couple of days.
Here is, probably(?), the first problem of this type to appear in print.
Find the value of
\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1+4\sqrt{1+\dots
So how do you do your one Bertie? (or anyone else)
\sqrt{1+2\sqrt{1+3\sqrt{1+4\sqrt{1+\dots
I believe that the famous Indian mathematician, Ramanujan, proved that this converges to 3
As to how he did it.......that's way above my pay grade....!!!!!
You can read about this mathematical genius, here....
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Srinivasa_Ramanujan
Yes Chris, the problem is credited to Srinivasa Ramanujan (1187 - 1920). It appeared in the Journal of the Indian Mathematical Society in 1911. Apparently after about three months no one had come up with a solution, so he published the general result
x+1=√1+x√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√1+…
Try proving it as an exercise.
Substituting x = 2 gets you the stated problem with its answer.
Wow ! He was more than 700 years old. Was that why he was so good at mathematics ?
Yes I am sure his long gevity did help him. LOL
Although in reality it appears that Ramanujan was only 33 when he died - he was barely out of nappies.
Well Bertie I have given it a shot
Prove √1+x√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√.....=x+1LHSf(x)=√1+x√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√.....f(x+1)=√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√.....f(x)=√1+x∗f(x+1)f2(x)=1+x[f(x+1)]
RHSg(x)=x+1g(x+1)=x+1+1g(x+1)=1+g(x)g2(x)=(x+1)2g2(x)=x2+2x+1g2(x)=1+x(x+2)g2(x)=1+x[g(x+1)]
f2(x)=1+x[f(x+1)]andg2(x)=1+x[g(x+1)]$Itfollowsthat$f2(x)=g2(x)Nowf(x)≥0$becauseitistheanswertoasquareroot$g(x)=x+1$whichmustbe$≥0$Thereforexisgreaterthanorequalto−1$
The statement cannot be true if x is less than -1 because theRHS would be neg and the Left hand side can never be negative
$soforallrealvaluesofxgreaterthanorequalto−1$f(x)=g(x)√1+x√1+(x+1)√1+(x+2)√.....=x+1Q.E.D.
As an aside:
A look at two individual cases Ifx=0thenLHS=√1+0∗...=√1=1=RHSIfx=−1thenLHS=√1+−1∗√1+(−1+1)√...=√1+−1∗√1+0=√1+−1∗1=√0=0=RHS
I am really not completely sure of of this proof.
Is it really true for ALL real values greater of equal to -1?
Is it completely correct Bertie or does it need refining?
Hi Melody
Sorry, but I don't think that your proof is a proof. The problem is at the point where you say ' it follows that '
f2(x)=g2(x).
Just because two functions share the same property, it doesn't follow that they are the same function. For example if we have f(-x) = -f(x) and g(-x) = -g(x), it doesn't mean that f(x) and g(x) are the same function. It is simply saying that both f and g are odd functions, and there will be a whole stack of different possibles for either one of them.
I don't have a proof of this relationship that I really like. That would be a series of steps that took me from
f2(x)≡1+xf(x+1),
through to
f(x)≡1+x.
I do have a couple of routines that might just pass.
Suppose (for no particularly good reason that I can think of) that f(x) is a polynomial of degree n. Then, on the LHS we have a polynomial of degree 2n and on the RHS a polynomial of degree n+1. For these to be identically equal we need 2n = n + 1, from which n = 1. Therefore, let f(x) = ax + b. Substitute that in and equate coefficients across the identity and you find that a = b = 1.
If I had to guess how Ramanujan came up with the result I would go for the following. I think that he was doodling, so to speak.
(1+x)2=1+2x+x2=1+x(2+x)
so
1+x=√1+x(2+x)……(1).
Similarly,
(2+x)2=(1+(1+x))2=1+2(1+x)+(1+x)2=1+(1+x)(3+x)
so
2+x=√1+(1+x)(3+x)
so, substituting that into (1),
1+x=√1+x√1+(1+x)(3+x).
Now repeat the routine with 3 + x = 1 + (2 + x) and so on.